Capital Punishment Of The United States - 964 Words

The lawful infliction of death of an individual is what is referred to as death penalty. Majority of the countries in the world have abolished the practice, however, there is no cord that has been officially formed by world countries against its use (Cole, 25). China, which is the most populous country in the world, leads as it executes thousands of inmates yearly. United States of America still practices it even when it is perceived the most democratic republic on earth. As of today, 84 countries in the world retain capital punishment (The Grinnell Literary Societies, 78). However, the number of nations using death penalty is decreasing. With the recent pressure from different human rights watch groups and religious groups more so from the Roman Catholic Church, the world remains optimistic that the practice will be done away with once and for all in all nations (Cole, 42). Discussion This paper will tend to look at capital punishment in the US with a look down memory lane on how it came to be established and what has been the stand of the Roman Catholic Church in the matter. The research done also looks at reasons why death sentences are still being passed in the country despite numerous calls by human rights group to abolish this inhumane act. It will also portray why this practice should be abolished with reasons supporting its abolishment. The establishment of death penalty was first executed back in the eighteenth century B.C (Cole Christopher, 76). It wasShow MoreRelatedCapital Punishment : The United States928 Words   |  4 PagesAs we near the culmination of the twentieth century, capital punishment is in decline. Once a near universal practice, the death penalty has been abolished in 101 countries, as of July 2015(Amnesty International, 2015) and executions have become less common amongst industrialised democracies. Some nations keep capital statutes for instances of exceptional crimes such as treason, but parts of the former Soviet Union, Japan and the United States of America (USA) still administer death sentences forRead MoreCapital Punishment Of The United States961 Words   |  4 Pages Capital Punishment in the United States For centuries, capital punishment has been used as a consequence of capital crime. Criminals who have committed such crimes are subject to facing the death penalty. Pickens shares, â€Å"Capital crimes are considered to be treason or terrorist attacks against the government, crimes against property when life is threatened, and crimes against a person that may include murder, assault, and robberyRead MoreCapital Punishment Of The United States1495 Words   |  6 PagesCapital punishment in United States also titled as decease penalty, which is a permitted verdict in thirty one states and the American civilian and services lawful systems. Its application is restricted by the amendment of the eight to intensified killings committed by psychologically competent people. Capital punishment existed a consequence for numerous misdemeanors under English mutual regulation, and it was imposed in entire of the early US colonies preceding to the Declaration of IndependenceRead MoreCapital Pu nishment Of The United States2029 Words   |  9 Pages Capital punishment is one of the most debated topics in the history of the World. It has been implemented and repealed several times by several different countries (DPIC 2014). Capital punishment is the use of the death penalty on someone who has been found guilty of a crime. As of 2013 there are still 58 countries in the international community that still use the death penalty. Of those countries, China had the highest reported number of executions which was in the thousands, the next highest wasRead MoreEssay on Capital Punishment in the United States 598 Words   |  3 PagesAre serial criminals effectively being punished? Indeed much improvement must be done. The death penalty needs to be legal in every state. Capital punishment is the lawful infliction of death as a punishment and has been used in America since 1608. The death penalty has been mainly aimed at murder and rape perpetrators. For the past two hundred years w ith over 15,600 executions since 1608, most executions were completed though hangings; however, beginning in the 1900s new forms of execution developedRead More Capital Punishment in the United States Essay2514 Words   |  11 PagesThe death penalty is a controversial topic in the United States today and has been for a number of years. The death penalty is currently legal in 38 states and two federal jurisdictions (Winters 97). The death penalty statutes were overturned and then reinstated in the United States during the 1970s due to questions concerning its fairness (Flanders 50). The death penalty began to be reinstated slowly, but the rate of executions has increased during the 1990s (Winters103-107). There are a numberRead More The Issue of Capital Punishment in the United States Essay3455 Words   |  14 PagesDeath Valley: The Issue of Capital Punishment in the United States Should capital punishment be practiced in the United States? This question has been highly debated for many years because of the numerous, often conflicting perspectives from which various parties have attempted to answer it. These parties range from high-ranking politicians seeking to lower the national crime rate to the average United States taxpayer who does not want to see his or her money being spent inefficiently. In additionRead MoreEssay about Capital Punishment in the United States1844 Words   |  8 Pages Capitol punishment Capital Punishment The Argument Against the Death Penalty The feeling of the condemned man was indescribable, as he was minutes away from being executed by an unjust decision. The verdict of his case was guilty on the grounds of circumstantial evidence. When in all reality, he was guilty because he was black, poor and socially unacceptable. His case never stood a chance, it was over before it started. The judge and jury sentence the man to die in the electric chair. The condemnedRead More Capital Punishment in the United States Essay example2024 Words   |  9 PagesCapital punishment has been a controversial topic in association to ethics all of its existence. Issues pertaining to the execution methods, reasonability in the relationship of punishment to the crime, who receives the death penalty, and innocence have been discussed and researched in great lengths. Capital punishment is still an active form of â€Å"deterrence† in the United States for crimes considered the wo rst of the worst. In this paper I will discuss the history of the death penalty. I willRead MoreCapital Punishment Should Be Enforced Throughout The United States2182 Words   |  9 Pagesunchanging. The same can be said for death. It is for this reason that the death penalty is so effective. The death penalty, also known as â€Å"capital punishment,† is defined as â€Å"the execution, or punishment by killing, of a person who has been found guilty of a specific, and usually serious, crime† (Barber). Capital punishment should be enforced throughout the United States because it is a humane tradition that has been practiced for centuries, it deters crime, and it provides retribution and gives justice

Sample Questions Free Essays

Chapter-1 MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS Multiple Choice Questions 1 Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market? a. Firms are price setters. b. We will write a custom essay sample on Sample Questions or any similar topic only for you Order Now There are few sellers in the market. c. Firms can exit and enter the market freely. d. All of these 2 If a perfectly competitive firm currently produces where price is greater than marginal cost it a. will increase its profits by producing more. b. will increase its profits by producing less. c. is making positive economic profits. d. is making negative economic profits. 3 When a perfectly competitive firm makes a decision to shut down, it is most likely that a. Price is below the minimum of average variable cost. b. Fixed costs exceed variable costs. c. Average fixed costs are rising. d. Marginal cost is above average variable cost. 4 In the long run, a profit-maximizing firm will choose to exit a market when a. Fixed costs exceed sunk costs. b. Average fixed cost is rising. c. Revenue from production is less than total costs. d. marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue at the current level of production. 5 When firms have an incentive to exit a competitive market, their exit will a. Drive down market prices. b. Drive down profits of existing firms in the market. . Decrease the quantity of goods supplied in the market. d. All of the above are correct. 6 In a perfectly competitive market, the process of entry or exit ends when a. Firms are operating with excess capacity. b. Firms are making zero economic profit. c. Firms experience decreasing marginal revenue. d. Price is equal to marginal cost. 7 Equilibrium quantities in markets characterize d by oligopoly is a. Lower than in monopoly markets and higher than in perfectly competitive markets. b. Lower than in monopoly markets and lower than in perfectly competitive markets. Higher than in monopoly markets and higher than in perfectly competitive markets. d. Higher than in monopoly markets and lower than in perfectly competitive markets. 8 In economics the central problem is: a. b. c. d. e. Allocation. Consumption. Scarcity. Money. Production. c. 9 Indicate below what is NOT a factor of production. a. Land. b. A bank loan. c. Labor. d. Capital. 10 Macroeconomics deals with: a. The behavior of firms. b. Economic aggregates. c. The activities of individual units. d. The behavior of the electronics industry. 11 Microeconomics is not concerned with the behavior of: a. Aggregate demand. . Consumers. c. Industries. d. Firms. 12 The study of inflation is part of: a. Normative economics. b. Macroeconomics. c. Microeconomics. d. Descriptive economics. 13 Aggregate supplies is the total amount: a. Produced by the government. b. Of products produced by a given industry. c. Of labor supplied by all households. d. Of goods and services produced in an economy. 14 The total demand for goods and services in an economy is known as: a. National demand. b. Economy-wide demand. c. Gross national product. d. Aggregate demand. 15 If marginal benefit is greater than marginal cost, a rational choice involves: a. More of the activity. b. Less of the activity. c. No more of the activity. d. More or less, depending on the benefits of other activities. 16 A student chooses to study because the marginal benefit is greater than the ________ cost. a. average b. total c. marginal d. expected 17 Periods of less than full employment correspond to: a. b. c. d. Points outside the production possibility curve. Points inside the production possibility curve. Points on the production possibility curve. Either points inside or outside the production possibility curve. 18 The circular flow of goods and incomes shows the relationship between: a. Income and money. b. Wages and salaries. c. Goods and services. d. Firms and households. 19 In a free market system, the amount of goods and services that any one household gets depends upon its: a. Income. b. Wage and interest income. c. Wealth. d. Income and wealth. 20 In a planned or command economy, all the economic decisions are taken by the: a. Consumers. b. Workers. c. Government. d. Voters. Answers for Multiple Choice Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (c) 11(a) 12(b) 13(d) 16(c) 17(b) 18(d) 4 (c) 9 (b) 14(d) 19(d) 5 (c) 10 (b) 15(a) 20(c) Chapter-2 PRINCIPLES OF MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS Multiple Choice Questions 1 The word that comes from the Greek word for â€Å"one who manages a household is a. Market. b. Consumer. c. Producer. d. Economy. 2 Economics deals primarily with the concept of a. Scarcity. b. Poverty. c. Change. d. Power. 3 Which of the following is NOT included in the decisions that every society must make? a. what goods will be produced b. who will produce goods c. what determines consumer preferences d. who will consume the goods 4 In a market economy, characterized by Capitalism, there is full interference by the State in the economic activities of consumers and producers. a)True (b) False 5 In a market system of economy, there is no harmony between individual interests and interests of the community. (a)True (b) False 6 Efficiency is the relation between returns and cost. (a)True (b) False 7 The subject matter of macro –economic includes the theory of income and employment at an individual level. (a)True (b) False 8 Rational decision results in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦for the employees. a. Division of work. b. Centralization. c. Discipline. d. Motivation 9 A Theory Y approach is more suitable where a job offers: a. a high degree of intrinsic satisfaction. b. The ability to exercise initiative. c. An element of problem solving. d. All of the above. 10 Breech identifies four main elements of management. They are planning, control, coordination and: a. The division of work. b. Centralization. c. Discipline. d. Motivation. 11 Many well-known business economists participate in public debates. (a)True (b) False 12 Marginal Utility is the utility derived from the additional unit of a commodity consumed. (a)True (b) False 13 Compared to the static model, the fishing effort in a dynamic model is likely to be a. Larger. b. Smaller. c. Similar. . Larger or smaller. 14 Land, labor, and money are the three categories of economic resources. (a)True (b) False 15 Which of the following is not an interest rate derivative used for interest rate management? Interest rate guarantee a. Floor b. Swap c. Cap d. All of the above are interest rate derivatives 16 An agreement which guarantees an investor a minimum return on a principal amount is called a: a. Cap b. Executive stock option c. Stock option d. Floor 17 Which of the factors listed below is not a reason for decision making in organizations being a complex process? a. Modern information systems enable people to evaluate a range of possible outcomes b. Factors in the current context of the organization affect the decision c. Several stakeholders will have an interest in the decision d. People have to make decisions in a historical context 18 The overall process of decision making in, for example, staff selection includes which of these stages? a. Deciding which candidate to appoint b. Identifying the need for a new member of staff c. Agreeing the job specification d. All of the above 19 A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with what type of decision? . Uncertainty b. Non-programmed decision c. Bounded rationality d. Programmed decision 20 Decision making situations can be categorized along a scale which ranges from: a. Uncertainty to certainty to risk b. Certainty to uncertainty to risk c. Certainty to risk to uncertainty d. Certainty to risk to uncertainty to ambiguity Answers for Multiple Choic e Questions 1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (c) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(d) 17(a) 18(d) 4 (b) 9 (d) 14(b) 19(d) 5 (b) 10 (d) 15(d) 20(d) Chapter-3 CONCEPT OF DEMAND Multiple Choice Questions 1 The quantity demanded of Pepsi has decreased. The best explanation for this is that: a. The price of Pepsi increased. b. Pepsi consumers had an increase in income. c. Pepsi’s advertising is not as effective as in the past. d. The price of Coca Cola has increased. 2 Demand curves are derived while holding constant: a. Income, tastes, and the price of other goods. b. Tastes and the price of other goods. c. Income and tastes. d. Income, tastes, and the price of the good. 3 When the decrease in the price of one good causes the demand for another good to decrease, the goods are: a. Normal b. Inferior c. Substitutes d. Complements 4 Suppose the demand for good Z goes up when the price of good Y goes down. We can say that goods Z and Y are: a. Substitutes. b. Complements. c. Unrelated goods. d. Perfect substitutes. 5 If the demand for coffee decreases as income decreases, coffee is: a. An inferior good. b. A normal good. c. A complementary good. d. A substitute good. 6 Which of the following will NOT cause a shift in the demand curve for compact discs? a. A change in the price of pre-recorded cassette tapes. b. A change in income. c. A change in the price of compact discs. d. A change in wealth. When excess demand occurs in an unregulated market, there is a tendency for: a. Quantity supplied to decrease. b. Quantity demanded to increase. c. Price to rise. d. Price to fall. 8 Market equilibrium exists when _____________ at the prevailing price. a. b. c. d. quantity demanded is less than quantity supplied quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded quantity demanded equals quantity supplied qu antity demanded is greater than quantity supplied 9 A movement along the demand curve to the left may be caused by: a. A decrease in supply. b. A rise in the price of inputs. c. A fall in the number of substitute goods. d. A rise in income. 10 The quantity demanded of a product rises whenever (a) The product’s price falls. (b) Incomes increase. (c) Population increases. (d) The prices of substitute goods rise. (e) Consumer tastes and preferences change. 11 The equilibrium quantity must fall when (a) There is a decrease in demand. (b) There is a decrease in supply. (c) There is an increase in price. (d) There is an increase in demand and supply. (e) There is a decrease in demand and supply 12 The demand curve will shift to the left for most consumer goods when (a) Incomes decrease. b) The prices of substitutes fall. (c) The prices of complements increase (d) All of the above. 13 Producer goods, also called intermediate goods, in economics, goods manufactured and used in further manufacturing, processing, or resale. (a)True (b) False 14 Consumer goods are alternately called final goods, and the second term makes more sense in understanding the concept. (a)True (b) False 15 GDP stands for a. Gross Domestic Product b. Gross Deistic Product c. Gross dynamic product d. All of these 16 GNP stands for a. Gross national product b. Gross natural product c. Both (a)and (b) d. None of these 17 When the demand for a product is tied to the purchase of some parent product, its demand is called induced or derived. (a)True (b) False 18 An industry is the aggregate of firms (a)True (b) False 19 The ‘law of demand’ implies that: a. As prices fall, quantity demanded increases. b. As prices rise, quantity demanded increases. c. As prices fall, demand increases. d. As prices rise, demand decreases. 20 When the market operates without interference, price increases will distribute what is available to those who are willing and able to pay the most. This process is known as: a. Price rationing. . Price fixing. c. Quantity adjustment. d. Quantity setting Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (c) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (c) 11(d) 12(d) 13(a) 16(a) 17(a) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(a) 19(a) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(a) 20(a) Chapter-4 DETERMINATION OF DEMAND 1 The demand for a product or a service depends on a host of factors. (a)True (b) False 2 Demand curves may also be shifted by changes in expectations. (a)True (b) False 3 Quantity demand is a specific quantity that buyers are willing and able to buy at a specific demand price. (a)True (b) False 4 If the price of a complement increases, all else equal, a. Quantity demanded will increase. b. Quantity supplied will increase. c. Demand will increase. d. Demand will decrease. 5 Which of the following would lead to an INCREASE in the demand for golf balls? a. An decrease in the price of golf balls. b. An increase in the price of golf clubs. c. A decrease in the cost of producing golf balls. d. An increase in average household income when golf balls are a normal good. 6 If input prices increase, all else equal, a. Quantity supplied will decrease. b. Supply will increase. c. Supply will decrease. d. Demand will decrease. 7 Which of the following would decrease the supply of wheat? . A decrease in the price of pesticides. b. An increase in the demand for wheat. c. A rise in the price of wheat. d. An increase in the price of corn. 8 When Sonoma Vineyards increases the price of its Chardonnay from $15 per bottle to $20 per bottle, the result is a decrease in†¦ a. The quantity of this wine demanded. b. The quantity of this wine supplied. c. The demand for this wine. d. The supply of this wine. 9 Which of the following will cause a change in quantity supplied? a. Technological change. b. A change in input prices. c. A change in the market price of the good. d. A change in the number of firms in the market. 0 In which of the following cases will the effect on equilibrium output be indeterminate (i. e. , depend on the magnitudes of the shifts in supply and demand)? a. Demand decreases and supply decreases. b. Demand remains constant and supply increases. c. Demand decreases and supply increases. d. Demand increases and supply increases. 11 An increase in the number of firms selling pizza will cause, ceteris paribus, (a) an increase in supply. (b) an increase in demand. (c) a decrease in quantity demanded. (d) a decrease in the quantity supplied. 12 A change in demand is a change in the ENTIRE demand relation. a)True (b) False 13 The demand for a given product will rise if: a. Incomes rise for a normal good or fall for an inferior good b. The price of a complement falls c. The price of a substitute rises d. All of these 14 Two explanations for the law of demand are (a) Price and quantity effects. (b) Substitution and income effects. (c) Opportunity cost and substitution effects. (d) Substitutes and inferior goods. (e) None of the above. 15 An increase in demand, ceteris paribus, will usually cause (a) A decrease in quantity demanded. (b) an increase in quantity supplied. (c) an increase in supply. d) a higher quantity and a lower price. 16. The quantity demanded of a product rises whenever (a) the product’s price falls. (b) incomes increase. (c) population increases. (d) the prices of substitute goods rise 17 The demand curve is downward-sloping because at a higher price for a good (ceteris paribus) (a) people buy fewer substitutes. (b) people buy more complements. (c) people search for substitutes. (d) income rises. (e) substitutes become complements. 18 The supply curve is upward-sloping be cause at higher prices for a good (a) consumers search out more substitutes. (b) consumer income increases. c) demand is lower. (d) None of the above. 19 If the factors held constant along a supply or demand curve change, (a) the equilibrium may change. (b) the demand and supply equilibrium may be disrupted. (c) the supply or demand curve may shift. (d) All of the above. 20 If the price of crackers goes up when the price of cheese goes down, crackers and cheese are (a) inferior goods. (b) substitutes. (c) both substitutes and complements. (d) complements Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(d) 16(a) 17(c) 18(d) 4 (d) 9 (c) 14(b) 19(a) 5 (d) 10 (c) 15(b) 20(d) Chapter-5 PRICE ELASTICITY OF DEMAND 1 If the price elasticity of demand for a good is . 75, the demand for the good can be described as: a. normal b. elastic c. inferior d. inelastic. 2. When the price of a product is increased 10 percent, the quantity demanded decreases 15 percent. In this range of prices, demand for this product is: a. elastic b. inelastic c. cross-elastic. d. unitary elastic. 3. If the price elasticity of demand for a product is equal to 0. 5, then a 10 percent decrease in price will: a. increase quantity demanded by 5 percent. b. increase quantity demanded by 0. percent. c. decrease quantity demanded by 5 percent. d. decrease quantity demanded by 0. 5 percent. 4 If an increase in the supply of a product results in a decrease in the price, but no change in the actual quantity of the product exchanged, then: a. the price elasticity of supply is zero. b. the price elasticity of supply is infinite. c. the price elasticity of demand is unitary. d. the price elasticit y of demand is zero. 5. If 100 units of product K are sold at a unit price of $10 and 75 units of product K are sold at a unit price of $15, one can conclude that in this price range: a. emand for product K is elastic. b. demand for product K is inelastic. c. demand for product K has shifted to the right. d. consumers are sensitive to price changes of product K. 6 Total revenue falls as the price of a good increases if price ela sticity of demand is: a. elastic. b. inelastic c. unitary elastic d. perfectly elastic. 7 The demand for Cheerios cereal is more price-elastic than the demand for cereals as a whole. This is best explained by the fact that: a. Cheerios are a luxury. b. cereals are a necessity. c. there are more substitutes for Cheerios than for cereals as a whole. d. onsumption of cereals as a whole is greater than consumption of Cheerios. 8 What is the most likely effect of the development of television, videocassette players, and rental movies on the movie theater industry ? a. b. c. d. decreased costs of producing movies increased demand for movie theater tickets movie theater tickets become an inferior good increased price elasticity of demand for movie theater tickets 9 The price elasticity of demand will increase with the length of the period to which the demand curve pertains because: a. consumers’ incomes will increase. b. the demand curve will shift outward. . all prices will increase over time. d. consumers will be better able to find substitutes. 10. A state government wants to increase the taxes on cigarettes to increase tax revenue. (a)True (b) False 11 This tax would only be effective in raising new tax revenues if the price elasticity of demand is: a. unity b. elastic c. inelastic d. perfectly elastic. 12. Sony is considering a 10 percent price reduction on its color television sets. If the demand for sets in this price range is inelastic: A) revenues from color sets will remain constant. B) revenues derived from color sets will de crease. C) revenues derived from color sets will increase. D) the number of television sets sold will decrease 13 Elasticity of demand for a commodity with respect to change in its price. (a)True (b) False 14 An elasticity alternative in which infinitesimally small changes in price cause infinitely large changes in quantity. (a)True (b) False 15 Three factors that affect the numerical value of the price elasticity of demand are the a. b. c. d. availability of substitutes time period of analysis proportion of budget All of these 16 The price elasticity of demand is one of four common elasticity’s used in the analysis of the market. a)True (b) False 17 Cross elasticity of demand is: a. negative for complementary goods b. unitary for inferior goods. c. negative for substitute goods d. positive for inferior goods. 18. A positive cross elasticity of demand coefficient indicates that: a. a product is an inferior good. b. a product is a normal good. c. two products are substitute goods. d. t wo products are complementary goods. 19 A market without legal prices is in equilibrium when: a. quantity demanded equals price. b. the demand curve remains constant. c. quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. d. uantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied. 20 A relatively small change, say 1% on an INR 100,000 house, can make a BIG difference in the buyer’s decision to buy. (a)True (b) False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (a) 11(d) 12(c) 13(a) 14(a) 15(d) 16(a) 17(a) 18(c) 19(c) 20(a) Chapter-6 TYPES OF ELASTICITIES OF DEMAND 1 If it is observed that, in a particular market, price has risen and quantity exchanged has increased, it is likely that: a. supply has increased. b. supply has decreased. c. demand has increased. d. emand has decreased. 2 The quantity of a good demanded rises from 1000 to 1500 units when the price falls from $1. 50 to $1. 00 per unit. The price elasticity of demand for this pro duct is approximately: a. 1. 0 b. 16 c. 2. 5 d. 4. 0 3 If the elasticity of demand for a commodity is estimated to be 1. 5, then a decrease in price from $2. 10 to $1. 90 would be expected to increase daily sales by: a. 50% b. 1. 5% c. 5% d. 15% 4 A long-run demand curve, as compared to a short-run demand curve for the same commodity, is generally: a. more elastic b. less elastic c. of the same elasticity d. none of the above. The price elasticity of demand is 5. 0 if a 10 percent increase in the price results in a a. 2%decrease in quantity demanded. b. 5%decrease in quantity demanded. c. 10% decrease in quantity demanded d. 50% decrease in quantity demanded. 6 Demand for a good will likely be more elastic, a. The higher the level of income. b. The larger the proportion of monthly income spent on it. c. The fewer the good substitutes available. d. The higher the price of complementary goods. 7 Demand will be more elastic, a. The higher the income. b. The lower the price. c. The shor ter the passage of time after a permanent price increase. . The more substitutes available for the good. 8 The price elasticity of demand measures the sensitivity of demand to price changes. (a)True (b) False 9 If a good has no close substitutes and is regarded as a necessity by many consumers, then demand for the good will be quite elastic. (a)True (b) False 10 Cross elasticity of demand is the ratio of the percentage change in demand for a good to the percentage change in price for another. (a)True (b) False 11 A 50 percent increase in price that results in a 90 percent decrease in the quantity demanded indicates that demand is elastic in this price range. a)True (b)False 12 Demands for most goods tend to become more elastic with the passage of time. (a)True (b) False 13 If two goods are substitutes, then an increase in the price of one good will leads to an increase in the demand for the other good. (a)True (b) False 14 If two goods are complements, then a decrease in the price o f one good will results in a decrease in the demand of the other good. (a)True (b) False 15 The price elasticity of demand is the same as the slope of the demand curve. (a)True (b) False 16 If demand is price elastic, then: a. a rise in price will raise total revenue. b. a fall in price will raise total revenue. . a fall in price will lower the quantity demanded. d. a rise in price won’t have any effect on total revenues. 17 Complementary goods have: a. The same elasticity’s of demand. b. very low price elasticity of demand. c. negative cross price elasticity of demand with respect to each other. d. positive income elasticity of demand. 18 The price elasticity of demand generally tends to be: a. smaller in the long run than in the short run. b. smaller in the short run than in the long run. c. larger in the short run than in the long run. d. unrelated to the length of time. 19 If the price elasticity of supply of doodads is 0. 0 and the price increases by 3 percent, th en the quantity supplied of doodads will rise by a. 0. 60 percent. b. 0. 20 percent c. 1. 8 percent d. 18 percent. 20 If the cross-price elasticity between two commodities is 1. 5, a. The two goods are luxury goods. b. The two goods are complements. c. The two goods are substitutes. d. The two goods are normal goods. Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(b) 17(c) 18(b) 4 (a) 9 (b) 14(b) 19(c) 5 (d) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(c) Chapter-7 SUPPLY ANALYSIS 1 The cost of factor inputs like land, labor, and capital has a major influence on supply. a)True (b) False 2 Which of the following factors will make the demand for a product more elastic? (Assume the product has a straight-line, downward sloping demand. ) a. The product has no close substitutes. b. A very small proportion of income is spent on the good. c. A long time period has elapsed since the product’s price changed. d. A lower price 3 For a given normal supply curve, the amo unt of a tax paid by the buyer will be larger a. the more elastic the demand. b. the more inelastic the demand. c. the income elasticity is equal to zero d. when the price is high. With a perfectly elastic demand and a normal supply (upward-slopping) a. consumers will bear the entire tax burden. b. consumers will not bear any tax burden. c. consumers and producer will split the tax burden in half. d. producers will not bear any tax burden. 5 Which of the following leads to the producers paying all of a tax? a. The supply is perfectly elastic. b. The supply is perfectly inelastic. c. The demand is unit elastic. d. The demand is perfectly inelastic. 6 The incidence (split) of sales tax is determined by the a. level of government which imposes the tax. b. federal government in all cases. c. greed of the seller. d. rice elasticity of supply and demand. 7 The market supply curve is the horizontal sum of the individual supply curve. (a)True (b) False 8 Supply determinants are five ceteris paribus factors that are held constant when a supply curve is constructed. (a)True (b) False 9 Supply is the willingness and ability of producers to make a specific quantity of output available to consumers at a particular price over a given period of time. (a)True (b) False 10 Individuals supply factors of production to firms. (a)True (b) False 11 The supply curve for tomatoes is not thus more elastic in the short run than in the momentary period. (a)True (b)False 2 Macroeconomic studies are based on empirical evidence. (a)True (b)False 13 Demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. (a) True (b)False 14 In the market, anyone who agrees to pay the requisite price of a product would be excluded from their consumption. (a) True (b)False 15 Aglets are the metal or plastic tips on shoelaces that make it easier to lace your shoes. The demand for aglets is probably a. perfectly elastic. b. inelastic. c. elastic but not perfectly elastic. d. unit elastic. 16 The cross elasticity of de mand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a particular good to changes in the prices of a. Its complements but not its substitutes. b. its substitutes but not its complements. c. its substitutes and its complements d. neither its substitutes nor its complements. 17 If goods are complements, definitely their a. income elasticity’s are negative b. income elasticity’s are positive. c. cross elasticity’s are positive. d. cross elasticity’s are negative. 18 If a rise in the price of good 1 decreases the quantity of good 2 demanded, a. the cross elasticity of demand is negative b. good 1 is an inferior good. c. good 2 is an inferior good d. the cross elasticity of demand is positive. 9 The price elasticity of demand generally tends to be: a. smaller in the long run than in the short run. b. smaller in the short run than in the long run. c. larger in the short run than in the long run. d. unrelated to the length of time. 20 The demand for your services becomes more elastic. (a)True (b)False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (b) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (a) 11(b) 12(a) 13(b) 16(c) 17(d) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(b) 19(b) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(a) Chapter-8 PRODUCTION DECISION 1 Which of the following functions is not a core function of an organisation? a. The product/service development function b. The operations function c. The accounting and finance function d. The marketing (including sales) function 2 Most operations produce a mixture of both products and services. Which of the following businesses is closest to producing â€Å"pure† services? a. IT company b. A Restaurant c. Counsellor/therapist d. Steel company 3 Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high volume, low variety? a. A family doctor b. A carpenter c. A front office bank d. A fast food restaurant 4 Which of the following activities is not a direct responsibility of operations management? a. Designing the operation’s products, services and processes b. Planning and controlling the operation c. Developing an operations strategy for the operation d. Determining the exact mix of products and services that customers will want 5 Operations can be classified according to the degree of variation in demand and visibility of the operation as well as their volume and variety of production. Which of the following operations would be classified as high variation and high visibility? a. A front office bank b. A family doctor c. A fast food restaurant d. A carpenter 6 The production function incorporates the technically efficient method of †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. a. production. b. process c. function d. All of these 7 A fixed input is one whose quantity cannot be varied during the time under consideration. (a)True (b)False 8 Economists find it convenient to distinguish between the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. and the long run. a. short run b. large run c. big run d. None of these 9 The law of variable proportions states that as the quantity of one factor is increased, keeping the other factors fixed, the marginal product of that factor will eventually decline. a)True (b)False 10 MRP stands for a. Marginal Revenue Product b. Marginal Revenue process c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these 11 The book value of old equipment is not a relevant cost in a decision. (a)True (b)False 12. One of the dangers of allocating common fixed costs to a product line is that such allocations can make the line appear less profitable than it really is. (a)True (b)False 13. A differential cost is a variable cost. (a)True (b)False 14. All future costs are relevant in decision making. (a)True (b)False 15. Variable costs are always relevant costs. (a)True (b)False 6 Only the variable costs identified with a product are relevant in a decision concerning whether to eliminate the product. (a)True (b)False 17 Managers should pay little attention to bottleneck operations because they have limited capacity for producing output. (a)True (b)False 18 A cost that does not affect a decision is called an a. opportunity cost b. incremental cost c. avoidable cost d. irrelevant cost 19. Costs that change between alternatives are called a. fixed costs. b. opportunity costs. c. crelevant costs. d. sunk costs. 20. A cost incurred in the past that cannot be changed by any future action is a(n) a. pportunity cost b. sunk cost c. relevant cost d. avoidable cost Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 ( c) 3 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(b) 16(b) 17(b) 18(d) 4 (d) 9 (a) 14(b) 19(c) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(b) Chapter-9 ISOQUANT AND PRODUCTION FUNCTION 1 Economists typically assume that the owners of firms wish to a. produce efficiently. b. maximize sales revenues. c. maximize profits. d. All of these. 2 Efficient production occurs if a firm a. cannot produce its current level of output with fewer inputs. b. given the quantity of inputs, cannot produce more output. c. maximizes profit. d. All of the above. Limited liability is a benefit to a. sole proprietorships. b. partnerships. c. corporations. d. all of the above. 4 Which of the following statements best describes a production function? a. the maximum profit generated from given levels of inputs b. the maximum level of output generated from given levels of inputs c. all levels of output that can be generated from given levels of inputs d. all levels of inputs that could produce a given level of output 5 With respect to produ ction, the short run is best defined as a time period a. lasting about six months. b. lasting about two years. c. in which all inputs are fixed. d. n which at least one input is fixed. 6 In the long run, all factors of production are a. variable. b. fixed. c. materials. d. rented. 7 The short-run production functions for Albert’s Pretzels. The marginal productivity of labor equals the average productivity of labor a. for all levels of labor. b. at none of the levels of labor. c. only for the first worker. d. only for the fifth worker. 8 the short-run production function for Albert’s Pretzels. The law of diminishing marginal productivity a. appears with the second worker. b. has not yet appeared for any of the levels of labor. c. first appears with the fifth worker. d. s refuted by this evidence. 9 If the average productivity of labor equals the marginal productivity of labor, then a. the average productivity of labor is at a maximum. b. the marginal productivity of lab or is at a maximum. c. Both A and B above. d. Neither A nor B above. 10 Average productivity will fall as long as a. marginal productivity is falling. b. it exceeds marginal productivity. c. it is less than marginal productivity. d. the number of workers is increasing. 11 Factors of production are a) inputs and outputs. b) outputs only c) inputs only d) the minimum set of inputs that can produce a certain fixed quantity of output. 2 The set of all pairs (z1, z2) of inputs that yield the output y is the y-is quant. (a)True (b)False 13 L-shaped isoquants imply that production requires that the inputs are perfect substitutes. a. are imperfect substitutes. b. cannot be used together. c. must be used together in a certain proportion. d. None of these 14 Isoquants that are downward-sloping straight lines imply that the inputs a. are perfect substitutes. b. are imperfect substitutes. c. cannot be used together. d. must be used together in a certain proportion. 15 Isoquants that are downwar d-sloping straight lines exhibit a. n increasing marginal rate of technical substitution. b. a decreasing marginal rate of technical substitution. c. a constant marginal rate of technical substitution. d. a marginal rate of technical substitution that cannot be determined. 16 The profit maximization firm will choose the least cost combination of factors to produce at any given level of output. (a)True (b) False 17 The production function is useful in deciding on the additional value of employing a variable input in the production process. (a)True (b) False 18 The additional use of an input factor should be stopped when its marginal revenue productivity just equals its price. a)True (b) False 19 The least cost combination of-factors or producer’s equilibrium is now explained with the help of †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. curves and iso costs. a. iso product b. iso process c. Both(a) and (b) d. None of these 20 MRTS stands for†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a. Marginal rate of technical stru cture b. Marginal rate of technical substitution c. Both(a) and (b) d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (c) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 11(c) 12(a) 13(c) 16(a) 17(a) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(a) 19(a) 5 (d) 10 (b) 15(c) 20(b) Chapter-10 THEORY OF COST 1 The cost of capital is critically important in finance. a)True (b)False An implicit cost is a. the cost of giving up an alternative b. the cost of a chosen alternative c. calculated by subtracting the monetary cost. d. none of the above 3 The historical cost of an asset refers to the actual cost incurred at the time the asset was acquired. (a)True (b) False 4 An Explicit cost is a business expense accounted cost that can be easily identified such as wage, rent and materials. (a)True (b) False 5 Private is the cost that has to be paid by an individual who is directly involved in the production or consumption of a particular good. a)True (b) False 6 Social cost or external cost is not the cost burden carried by indivi duals who are not directly involved in the production or consumption of that particular good (a)True (b) False 7 Average cost is the sum total of Average variable it and average fixed cost. (a)True (b) False 8 Cost-output relationship facilitates many managerial relationships such as: a. Formulating the standards of operations. b. Formulating the rational policy on plant size. c. Formulating a policy of profit prediction. d. All of these 9 Cost in the short-run can be classified into†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦and variable cost. a. fixed cost b. sset c. both (a) and (b) d. None of these 10 Total fixed costs remained fixed irrespective of increase or decrease in production of activity. (a)True (b) False 11 Marginal costs is the change in total cost resulting from unit change in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a. output b. input c. both(a) and (b) d. None of these 12 The †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. implies that the cost of production continues to be low till the firm reaches the optimum scale (Marginal cost = Av erage cost). a. V-shape b. Q-shape c. U-shape d. All of these 13 Scale economies and returns to scale generally produce a U-shaped long-run average cost curve, such as the one displayed to the right. a) True (b) False 14 __________ is concerned with the branch of economics relating the behavior of principals and their agents. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 15 A concept that implies that the firm should consider issues such as protecting the consumer, paying fair wages, maintaining fair hiring practices, supporting education, and considering environmental issues. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 16 Which of the following is not normally a responsibility of the treasurer of the modern corporation but rather the controller? . Budgets and forecasts b. Asset management c. Investment management d. Financing management 17 The __________ decision involves determining the appropr iate make-up of the righthand side of the balance sheet. a. asset management b. financing c. investment d. capital budgeting 18 A long-run is also expressed as a series of short-runs. (a)True (b)False 19 Which of the following are used in calculating opportunity costs? a. monetary costs b. the cost of time c. preference d. all of the above 20 An explicit cost is a. the cost of giving up an alternative b. the cost of a chosen alternative c. alculated by subtracting the monetary cost of an alternative by the time invested d. none of the above Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(c) 13(a) 16(a) 17(b) 18(a) 4 (a) 9 (a) 14(c) 19(d) 5 (a) 10 (a) 15(d) 20(b) Chapter-11 MARKET STRUCTURE, AND PRICING 1 Which of the following cannot be classed as a market structure? a. Oligopoly. b. Perfect competition. c. Communism. d. Monopolistic competition. 2 Income and population are two variables that can be used in ______ segmentation: a. psychographic b. demographic c. lifestyle d. behavioural 3 Strong exchange rates can: a. help stimate consumer purchasing power. b. help predict change in lifestyle across Europe. c. predict the evolution of sales for particular brands. d. drive imports to become cheaper. 4 BERI stands for: a. Business Economic Risk Index. b. Business Economic Rating International. c. Business Education Rating Indicator. d. Business Environment Risk Index. 5 The size and liquidity requirements are based on the minimum invest ability requirements for the MSCI Global Standard Indices. (a) True (b) False 6 Oligopoly is a market structure in which a small number of firms account for the whole industry’s output. (a) True (b) False The number of firms and product differentiation are extremely crucial in determining the nature of competition in a market. (a) True (b) False 8 type of market structure represented by the constant returns to scale (CRS) technology includes a. Monopolistic competition b. Oligopoly c. Duo poly d. Perfect competition 9 In industries in which there are scale economies, the variety of goods that a country can produce is constrained by a. the fixed cost b. the size of the labor force c. the marginal cost d. the size of the market 10 A monopoly firm engaged in international trade but enjoying a protected home market will a. quate marginal costs with foreign marginal revenues. b. equate marginal costs with marginal revenues in both domestic and foreign markets c. equate average costs in local and foreign markets d. none of the above 11 Minimum efficient scale of production in relation to the overall industry output and market requirement sometimes play a major role in shaping the market structure. (a)True (b) False 12 Price and output decisions of firms that want to maximize profits always depend on costs. (a) True (b) False 13 Which of the following is NOT a financial objective of pricing? a. Corporate growth. b. Return on investment. c. Profit maximization. d. None of these 14 Which of the following is NOT a marketing objective? a. Cash flow. b. Positioning. c. Volume sales. d. None of these 15 Setting a price below that of the competition is called: a. Skimming. b. Penetration pricing. c. Competitive pricing. d. None of these 16 Which of the following is NOT a reason for cutting prices? a. Capacity utilisation. b. Increasing profit margins. c. Market defence. d. None of these 17 Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing prices? a. Cost pressures. b. Price comparison. c. Curbing demand. d. None of these 18 The costs that depend on output in the short run are: a. both total variable costs and total costs. b. total costs only. c. total fixed cost only. d. total variable costs only 19 A firm will shut down in the short run if: a. fixed costs exceed revenues. b. total costs exceed revenues. c. it is suffering a loss. d. variable costs exceed revenues. 20 In the long run, every cost is variable cost. In this period, all costs ever incurred by the firm must be recovered. (a)True (b) False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(b) 17(b) 18(a) (d) 9 (d) 14(a) 19(d) 5 (a) 10 (b) 15(b) 20(a) Chapter-12 PERFECT COMPETITION 1. A perfectly competitive firm will maximize profit at the quantity at which the firm’s marginal revenue equals a. price b. average revenue c. total cost d. marginal cost 2 Which of the following is not a valid option for a perfectly competitive firm? a. Increasing its output. b. Decreasing its out put. c. Increasing its price. d. Increasing its resources. 3 In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all but which of the following: a. Economic profit b. Allocative Efficiency c. Productive Efficiency d. Normal profit 4 If the price a firm receives for its product is equal to the marginal cost of producing that product, the firm is: a. Always earning an economic profit b. Always productively efficient. c. Always allocatively efficient. d. Always experiencing an economic loss. 5 A firm that is producing at the lowest possible average cost is always: a. Earning an economic profit. b. Productively efficient. c. Dominating the other firms in the market. d. Not producing enough output. 6 Which of the following is the best example of a perfectly competitive market? a. diamonds b. athletic shoes c. soft drinks d. arming 7 Perfect competition is an industry with a. a few firms producing identical goods. b. many firms producing goods that differ somewhat. c. a few firms producing goods that differ somewhat in quality. d. many firms producing identical goods. 8 In a perfectly competitive industry, there are a. many buyers and many sellers. b. many sellers, but there might be only one or two bu yers. c. many buyers, but there might be only one or two sellers. d. one firm that sets the price for the others to follow. 9 In perfect competition, the product of a single firm a. is sold to different customers at different prices. b. as many perfect complements produced by other firms. c. has many perfect substitutes produced by other firms. d. is sold under many differing brand names. 10 In perfect competition, restrictions on entry into an industry a. do not exist. b. apply to labor but not to capital. c. apply to both capital and labor. d. apply to capital but not to labor. 11 Price for a firm under monopolistic competition is ______. a. equal to marginal revenue b. greater than marginal revenue c. less than marginal revenue d. greater than total revenue 12 In the long run, monopolistically competitive firms tend to experience ______. a. high economic profits b. ero economic profits c. negative economic profits d. substantial economic losses 13 Marginal revenue for a monopolis t is ______ a. equal to price b. greater than price c. less than price d. equal to average revenue 14 Perfect competitions describes a market structure whose assumptions are extremely strong and highly unlikely to exist in most real-time and real-world markets. (a)True (b) False 15 Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by a large number of relatively small firms. (a)True (b) False 16 A monopolist can sell more of his output only at a lower price and can reduce the sale at a high price. a)True (b) False 17 A monopoly is a market structure in which there is not only one producer/seller for a product. (a)True (b) False 18 A perfectly competitive firm produces the profit-maximizing quantity of output that equates marginal revenue and marginal cost. (a)True (b) False 19 A perfectly competitive firm faces †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. production alternatives based on a comparison of price, average total cost, and average variable cost. a. four short-run b. three short-run c. five short-run d. All of these 20 A perfectly competitive firm’s marginal cost curve that lies above the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. of the average variable cost curve is its supply curve. . minimum b. maximum c. both(a) and (b) d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(b) 13(a) 16(b) 17(b) 18(a) 4 (c) 9 (c) 14(a) 19(b) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(a) 20(a) Chapter-13 OLIGOPOLY AND PRICING STRATEGIES 1 A price- and quantity-fixing agreement is known as: a. game theory. b. price leadership. c. collusion. d. price concentration. 2 A group of firms that gets together to make price and output decisions is called: a. a cartel. b. price leadership. c. an oligopoly. d. a concentrated industry 3 Products produced by oligopolistic ? rms are: a. Homogeneous. b. Heterogeneous. . Differentiated. d. Heterogeneous or differentiated. 3 Oligopoly is the only market structure characterized by: a. Interdependence in pricing and output decisions. b. Differentiated products. c. Barriers to entry. d. Pro? t-maximizing behavior. 4 Oligopoly is characterized by all of the following except: a. A few large ? rms. b. Differentiated product. c. Difficult entry into the industry. d. Price competition 5 A major threat to longer term profits exists when barriers to entry into an industry are high. (a)True (b) False 6 Under kinked demand theory the prices of oligopolists are predicted to be rather rigid or ‘sticky’. a)True (b) False 7 In contestable markets, large oligopolistic firms end up behaving like: a. a monopoly. b. monopolistically competitive firms. c. a cartel. d. perfectly competitive firms 8 Which of the following types of oligopoly competition would you expect to result in the highest market output, other things equal? a. b. c. d. Stackelberg. Bertrand. Cornet. Collusion 9 The demand curve has a kink at the price which is equal to full cost price. (a) True (b) False 10. An pro? t maximizing, oligopolistic firms pr oduces at an output level where: a. P = ATC. b. MR = MC. c. MR = ATC. d. AVC MR. e. P = MR 11 Cartels are most likely to arise in which of the following market structures? a. Perfect competition. b. Monopolistic Competition. c. Oligopoly. d. Monopoly. 12 A cartel is a formal collusive organization of the oligopoly firms in an industry. (a) True (b) False 13 Needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders may be called: a. team functions. b. work functions. c. individual functions. d. task functions. 14 The Hall and flitch model of the kinked demand curve is based on an empirical survey of a sample of 38 well managed arms in England. a) True (b) False 15 The model uses the analytical tools of reaction functions of the duopolists derived on the basis of is not profit curves. (a) True (b) False 16 The important models of non-collusive oligopoly are: (a) Cournot model, (b) Kinked Oligopoly demand curve models. (a) True (b) False 17 Which of the following is not an operations strategy? a. response b. low-cost lea dership c. differentiation d. technology 18 Which of the following is not one of the leadership styles identified in House’s pathgoal theory? a. Participative. b. Employee-centered. c. Directive. d. Achievement-oriented. 9 The petroleum industry is an example of a. monopolistic competition. b. pure oligopoly. c. duopoly. d. differentiated oligopoly. 20 The kinked demand curve model assumes that a. firms match price increases, but not price cuts. b. demand is more elastic for price cuts than for price increases. c. changes in marginal cost can never lead to changes in market price. d. None of the above is correct. Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 11(b) 12(c) 13(a) 16(a) 17(d) 18(b) 4 (a) 9 (b) 14(a) 19(b) 5 (d) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(d) Chapter-14 PROFIT ANALYSIS 1. A variable cost is a cost that a. varies per unit at every level of activity b. occurs at various times during the year c. varies in total in proportion to changes in the level of activity d. may not be incurred, depending on management’s discretion 2. A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a a. variable cost b. fixed cost c. mixed cost d. manufacturing cost 3. A fixed cost is a cost which a. varies in total with changes in the level of activity b. remains constant per unit with changes in the level of activity c. varies inversely in total with changes in the level of activity d. emains constant in total with changes in the level of activity 4. Cost behavior analysis is a study of how a firm’s costs a. relate to competitors’ costs b. relate to general price level changes c. respond to changes in activity levels within the company d. respond to changes in the gross national product 5. Cost behavior analysis applies to a. retailers b. wholesalers c. manufacturers d. all entities 6. The relevant range of activity refers to the a. geographical areas where the company plans to operate b. activity level where all costs are curvilinear c. levels of activity over which the company expects to operate d. evel of activity where all costs are constant 7. Which of the following is not a plausible explanation of why variable costs often behave in a curvilinear fashion? a. Labor specialization b. Overtime wages c. Total variable costs are constant within the relevant range d. Availability of quantity discounts 8. Firms operating constantly at 100% capacity a. are common b. are the exception rather than the rule c. have no fixed costs d. have no variable costs 9. Which one of the following is a name for the range over which a company expects to operate? a. Mixed range b. Fixed range c. Variable range d. Relevant range 10 The graph of variable costs that behave in a curvilinear fashion will a. approximate a straight line within the relevant range b. be sharply kinked on both sides of the relevant range c. be downward sloping d. be a stair-step pattern 11. A mixed cost contains a. a variable cost element and a fixed cost element b. both selling and administrative costs c. both retailing and manufacturing costs d. both operating and non-operating costs 12. The variable costing method is also known as the direct costing method indirect costing approach absorption costing method period costing approach 13. The costing approach that charges all manufacturing costs to the product is referred to as a. variable costing b. contribution margin costing c. direct costing d. absorption costing 14. Variable costing is acceptable for a. financial statement purposes b. profit tax purposes c. internal use by management only d. profit tax purposes and for internal use by management 15. CVP analysis does not consider a. level of activity b. fixed cost per unit c. variable cost per unit d. sales mix 16. Which of the following is not an underlying assumption of CVP analysis? a. Changes in activity are the only factors that affect costs b. Cost classifications are reasonably accurate c. Beginning inventory is larger than ending inventory d. Sales mix is constant 17. Which of the following would not be an acceptable way to express contribution margin? a. Sales minus variable costs b. Sales minus unit costs a. b. c. d. c. d. Unit selling price minus unit variable costs Contribution margin per unit divided by unit selling price a. b. c. d. 18. The level of activity at which total revenues equal total costs is the variable point fixed point semi-variable point break-even point 19. The break-even point is where a. otal sales equals total variable costs b. contribution margin equals total fixed costs c. total variable costs equal total fixed costs d. total sales equals total fixed costs 20. Gross profit also includes rent that arises from the entrepreneur’s own land used in his production of output. a. True b. False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 5. (d) 12. (a) 19. (b) 6. (c) 13. (d) 20. (a) Chapter-15 1. There are †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. methods which can be used to appraise any investment project: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 2. National income is the total of the value of the goods and the services which are produced in an economy. (a) True (b) False 3. Which two of the following are likely to raise the equilibrium value of National Income? (a) Rise in savings. (b) Rise in imports. (c) Rise in government spending. (d) Rise in exports. 4. Which two of the following are excluded when measuring National Income? (a) Value added in the output method. (b) Value of intermediate inputs in the output method. (c) Consumer spending in the expenditure method. (d) Transfer payments in the income method. 5. The return on an investment comes in the form of a stream of earnings in the future. (a) True (b) False 6. Cost-benefit analysis is a process for evaluating the merits of a particular project or course of action in a systematic and rigorous way. (a) True ` (b) False 7. ‘Real’ investment is not (a) the amount that shareholders are willing to provide for shares in a company (b) the cost of development of a new product (c) expenditure on public relations, staff training or research and development (d) expenditure on non-current assets such as plant, machinery, land and buildings 8. Which of the following statements about IRR and NPV is not correct? (a) NPV always gives the correct investment decision. (b) IRR gives an unreliable answer with non-conventional projects. (c) IRR can accommodate changes in the cost of capital. (d) IRR is a useful relative measure if comparing projects of differing sizes. 9. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total market value of all final goods and services currently produced within the domestic territory of a country in a year. (a) True (b) False 10. Which of the following will not be a relevant factor when using the payback method of capital investment appraisal? a) The timing of the first cash inflow (b) The total cash flows generated by the asset (c) The cash flows generated by the asset up to the payback period (d) The cost of the asset 11. Why the payback method is often considered inferior to discounted cash flow in capital investment appraisal? (a) I is more difficult to calculate (b) It does not calculate how long it will take to recoup the money invested (c) It does not take account of the time value of money (d) It only takes into account the future income of a project 12. Gross National Product is the total market value of all final goods and services produced in a year. (a) True (b) False 13. In 2005†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. was the least significant liability of U. S. nonfinancial businesses in terms of total value. (a) bonds and mortgages (b) bank loans (c) inventories (d) trade debt 14. †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. are examples of financial intermediaries. (a) Commercial banks (b) Insurance companies (c) Investment companies (d) All of the above 15. Financial assets †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a) directly contribute to the country’s productive capacity (b) indirectly contribute to the country’s productive capacity (c) contribute to the country’s productive capacity both directly and indirectly (d) do not contribute to the country’s productive capacity either directly or indirectly 16. The means by which individuals hold their claims on real assets in a welldevelopedeconomy are (a) investment assets. (b) depository assets. (c ) derivative assets (d) financial assets 17. Capital budgeting is the process of evaluating and selecting long-term investments that are consistent with the goal of the firm. a) True (b) False 18. Although derivatives can be used as speculative instruments, businesses most often use them to (a) attract customers. (b) appease stockholders. (c) offset debt. (d) hedge 19. The investment in fixed assets increases the fixed cost of the firm which must be recovered from the benefit of the same project. (a)True (b) False 20. National Income is defined as the sum total of all the goods and services produced in a country, in a particular period of time. (a) True (b) False Answer 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a) Chapter-16 1. In period of inflation, phantom or paper profits may be reports as a result of using the: (a) FIFO costing assumption (b) Perpetual inventory method (c) L IDO costing assumption (d) Periodic inventory method 2. Inflation is: (a) an increase in the overall price level. (b) an increase in the overall level of economic activity. (c) a decrease in the overall level of economic activity. (d) a decrease in the overall price level. 3. Aggregate supply is the total amount: (a) produced by the government. (b) of goods and services produced in an economy. c) of labour supplied by all households. (d) of products produced by a given industry. 4. The value of a dollar does not stay constant when there is inflation. (a) True (b) False 5. The inflation rate in India was recorded at 7. 23% in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ (a) April of 2009 (b) April of 2010 (c) April of 2011 (d) April of 2012 6. The function of money that helps assess the opportunity cost of an activity is money’s use as a (a) medium of exchange. (b) store of value. (c) unit of account. (d) store of debt. 7. An official measure of money in the United States is M1, which consists of the sum of (a) currency plus traveler’s checks. b) currency plus checkable deposits. (c) currency plus traveler’s checks plus checkable deposits. (d) currency plus traveler’s checks plus time deposits. 8. Implies no trade-off between unemployment and inflation. (a) GDP deflator (b) Shoe leather’ costs (c) Long-run Phillips curve (d) ‘Menu’ costs 9. The inflation rate is used to calculate the real interest rate, as well as real increases in wages. (a) True (b) False 10†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ the quantity of money in the United States. (a) The State Department controls (b) The Department of Treasury controls (c) The Federal Reserve System controls (d) Commercial banks control 11. There are broadly †¦.. ways of controlling inflation in an economy. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 12. The balance of payments of a country is said to be in equilibrium when the demand for foreign exchange in exactly equivalent to the supply of it. (a) True (b) False 13. A general decline in prices is often caused by a reduction in the supply of†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. (a) money or debit (b) money or credit (c) money (d) None of these 14. The opportunity cost of holding money is the (a) inflation rate minus the nominal interest rate. (b) nominal interest rate. (c) real interest rate. (d) unemployment rate. 15. If the Fed is worried about inflation and wants to raise the interest rate, it (a) increases the demand for money. (b) increases the supply of money. (c) decreases the demand for money. (d) decreases the supply of money. 16. The circular flow of goods and incomes shows the relationship between: (a) income and money. (b) goods and services. (c) firms and households. (d) wages and salaries. 17. Fiscal measures to control inflation include taxation, government expenditure and public borrowings. (a) True (b) False 18. Hyperinflation (a) occurs in the United States during each business cycle. b) occurs only in theory, never in reality. (c) has never occurred in the United States. (d) happens in all countries at some time during their business cycle. 19. Hyperinflation refers to a situation where the prices rise at an alarming high rate. (a) True (b) False 20. The inflation rate is used to calculate the real interest rate, as well as real increases in wages. (a)True (b) False Answer 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a) How to cite Sample Questions, Essay examples

Dunkin Donuts free essay sample

In the competitive world of the coffee industry, or any industry for that matter, it is essential for companies to have a clear understanding of what they do best, and where they can be the best. Dunkin’ Donuts is well known by generations and loved by a growing number of customers around the world. It was first established in 1950, in Quincy, Massachusetts, by William Rosenberg. Back then, William had a simple philosophy: â€Å"Make and serve the freshest, most delicious coffee and donuts quickly and courteously in modern, well-merchandised stores† (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). That philosophy still holds true today and is the foundation that has enabled Dunkin’ Donuts to grow to be the largest coffee and baked goods chain in the world. Dunkin’ Donuts offers more than a dozen hot and iced coffee beverages, donuts, bagels, muffins, breakfast sandwiches, and other baked goods. Currently, Dunkin’ Donuts has more than 6,700 shops in 29 countries worldwide. They sell more than 4 million donuts and 2. 7 million cups of coffee daily (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). Dunkin’ Donuts is well positioned for the future. Dunkin’ Donuts mission statement is: â€Å"Dunkin’ Donuts will strive to be the dominant retailer of high quality donuts, bakery products and beverages in each metropolitan market in which we choose to compete† (Hoovers, 2008). Dunkin’ Donuts strategy is one of differentiation where they seek to make a high quality product and sell that product within a specific environment. This analysis will provide information concerning the ideals, actuals, and gaps concerning the operations and daily business practices of Dunkin’ Donuts. There are three ideals that can be incorporated into Dunkin’ Donuts operations that will lead to a more productive strategic position. The first ideal is Dunkin’ Donuts would like to become the leader of America’s largest retailer of coffee. The next ideal Dunkin’ Donuts would like to achieve is enhancing their stores, to improve and please customer experiences. Lastly, Dunkin’ Donuts would like to improve assortment through innovation of new products to help compete with the marketplace. Ideal: Dunkin’ Donuts is America’s largest retailer of coffee Dunkin’ Donuts would like to become America’s leader in coffee serving millions of American’s daily. They would like to provide delicious food and beverages to customers while ensuring the finest ingredients in their coffee drinks. Ideally, Dunkin’ Donuts would like to expand their stores across the country to help them become America’s leader in coffee. Actual: Dunkin’ Donuts is America’s largest retailer of coffee-by-the-cup, serving nearly one billion cups of brewed coffee each year (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). Using only 100 percent Arabica coffee beans, Dunkin’ Donuts offers a milder roast coffee that is milled specifically for the company and is recognized by the industry as a superior grade of coffee (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). Dunkin’ Donuts was the first national brand to sell espresso beverages made exclusively with Fair Trade Certified coffee. Through Fair Trade, farmers and their families are earning a better income for their hard work, allowing them to hold onto their land, keep their children in school, and invest in the quality of their harvest (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). Dunkin’ Donuts prides themselves with serving delicious food and beverages to their customers. â€Å"They serve a menu that is fast, fresh, and affordable† (Spielberg, 2006). Iced coffee is becoming as popular as hot coffee at Dunkin’ Donuts. While iced coffee sales typically spike in summer months, Dunkin Donuts has seen rapid growth all year round, including during the winter months (Abelson, 2007). Iced coffee is the second most frequently sold product after hot coffee at Dunkin Donuts. Millions of iced coffee lovers turn to Dunkin Donuts because they recognize the quality of its iced coffee. Dunkin Donuts has been at the forefront in developing an innovative process for brewing iced coffee, which has set the standard for the industry. The unique process, called double brewing, uses twice the amount of coffee when making the beverage to achieve consistent flavor and freshness that are never compromised at the expense of serving it cold. The result is a smooth, rich taste sensation (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). It produces iced coffee that is never bitter or watered down. Dunkin’s Donuts also offers a variety of flavors to add to your iced or hot coffee. Customers can choose from nine tempting flavors such as French Vanilla, Blueberry, Coconut, and Chocolate. They are all 100 percent sugar-free and contain no preservatives (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). To secure and sustain Dunkin’ Donuts leadership position as America’s largest retailer of coffee-by-the-cup, the company has begun an aggressive national expansion (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). Dunkin’ Donuts, which has over 4,800 outlets in the United States, plans to triple its size across the country (Spielberg, 2006). Initial cities targeted for Dunkin’ Donuts national expansion include Atlanta, Baltimore, Charlotte, Cleveland, Nashville, and Tampa. Gap: Dunkin’s Donuts is America’s leader in coffee-by-the-cup and not the leader in the coffee industry. Their strategy is to incorporate differentiating features to set them apart from the marketplace with their low cost and high quality; however, that is not a sustainable competitive advantage. This strategy can only remain powerful as long as the company is sufficiently innovative and other company’s can not compete (Gamble, Strickland, Thompson, 2007). Companies such as McDonalds, Krispy Kreme, and Starbucks are competing with Dunkin’ Donuts strategy everyday. Starbucks offers hip music and cool furniture in their stores to create a relaxing atmosphere. Their coffee is only priced a few dollars higher than Dunkin’ Donuts which could hurt their sustainable competitive advantage of low cost (Spielberg, 2006). Dunkin’ Donuts ultimate goal is to provide more stores and locations than Starbucks and McDonalds currently have to help create differentiation (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). Ideal: Dunkin’ Donuts offers the best customer experiences in their stores Dunkin’ Donuts would like to create an atmosphere where customers are pleased with their customer service to keep customers coming back time and time again. Ideally, they would like to expand their menus to please customers and deliver value propositions. Dunkin’ Donuts goal is to be the best at customer satisfaction and to exceed consumers’ expectations. Actual: According to a survey conducted in 2007, in the coffee and donut category, Dunkin’ Donuts was named number one in customer loyalty (Bawaba, 2007). Our primary goal at Dunkin Donuts is customer satisfaction so this ranking is an immense honor for our brand, said David Rodgers, Dunkin Donuts General Manager (Bawaba, 2007, pg. 1). According to the survey, Dunkin Donuts more consistently meets or exceeds consumer expectations than its competitors. Dunkin’ Donuts customers are passionate about their Dunkin’ Donuts experience, which for million of customers is an everyday ritual. The company recently conducted another study in which customers were asked to go without Dunkin’ Donuts coffee for one week (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). The results showed that people felt life was harder, that their day lacked order, and that competitors couldn’t fill the social and emotional needs they get from a visit to a Dunkin’ Donuts store (Dunkin’ Donuts, 2008). Dunkin’ Donuts also prides themselves in their menu to please customers’ everyday. As part of the company’s commitment to offering more menu choices without compromising quality, the company has assembled a new culinary team, a lineup of skilled and honored chefs who are using their talents and experience to create new and innovative menu choices for customers (Spielberg, 2006). Recently, Dunkin’ Donuts identified a new restaurant category called â€Å"Quick Quality. † This represents a promise of fresh food fast and a higher evolution of the standards quick-service experience (Spielberg, 2006). Dunkin’ Donuts is doing this because they want to make customers’ trips to their stores more meaningful and to deliver value proposition that their customers expect, and then some. Gap: The gap is closed in regards to Dunkin’ Donuts and customer service. It is extremely important for Dunkin’ Donuts to maintain a strong competitive advantage with customer service. If the company does not display good values, which are the beliefs, traits, and behavioral norms that the company personnel and expected to display, then customers might take their business elsewhere (Gamble, Strickland, Thompson, 2007). This could possibly hurt Dunkin’ Donuts finances and their business environment in the long run. Ideal: Dunkin’ Donuts has the best products in the marketplace

The Geography of Art Essay Example For Students

The Geography of Art Essay Arts and Geography Geography (from Greek word geographic Vichy means earth description) is the science that studies the lands, the features, the inhabitants, and the phenomena of the Earth, While art gives a creative interpretation Of them. However, if you combine the two, you can bring geography to life. Explore the cultures and civilizations Of a country along With its land holdings. Use art to examine the values and lifestyle of a culture as you look at different artifacts for clues to past societies. Humans are made with a natural curious sense of art. Humans will never stop exploring new types and forms of art. We will write a custom essay on The Geography of Art specifically for you for only $16.38 $13.9/page Order now For example, visual arts can take an unforgettable moment and keep it like a photo, or painting. If youre not feeling good, you can restore confidence by remembering a good time you had looking at a picture, reminding you that not all of your life is useless, and good times still exist in you. This makes us feel closer toward art, thus giving us a relationship. In a patriotic country like the U. S. A. , you can find many monuments, and testers, and buildings, which make a place, feel lordlier, and give you a feel of safety, and pride. It helps tightening a good relationship more. Music is a different type of art, the beat in a song, or track, or rhythm, matches your heartbeat, beating together as one. Music is a very unique source of art, babies will clap to music, not just an ordinary sound, termites bite faster in music, and bees work better and harder once hearing music. There are many other forms of art, which work on the same lines. To sum it all up, art is a part of us, and that is our relationship with art. Geography as Art is a situation Which artists use features Of earth as their inspiration. One of the best examples is the San Francisco at Night by Ben Joyce. He describes his work as Abstract Topographical: The affective bond between people and place or The Love of Place. He explains how cities like San Francisco inspire his artwork. He stated, There is great beauty and intrigue in the layout of a city from your everyday drive to work, to the historical creation of the streets, to your personal relationship with the town. We can also teach geography through the use of artist paintings. Show pictures of art from different countries to the class, We have to pick an art that is distinctive, such as Egyptian, Aztec Indians or Chinese.

life during the industrial revelotion Essays

life during the industrial revelotion Essays life during the industrial revelotion Essay life during the industrial revelotion Essay Year 9 Essay Life during the Industrial Revolution was hard Do I agree? The Industrial Revolution was in Britain during 1750-1900. Britain in this time was ruled by one of the weakest monarchs King George II but also one of the longest reigning monarchs, Queen Victoria. This period is called the Industrial Revolution as many inventions were made during this time. Some historians think it was a positive time to live, this depended if you were a man or woman as men had the upper hand by having more rights, such as being able to keep the money they earned. If you were Capitalist youd make more money than a Socialist, and more inventions such as; the camera, flushing toilet and telephone made even more luxuries so it was a more relaxing life. Other historians think it was a difficult time to live because if you were a woman youd have fewer rights such as not being respected if you did not get married. Work was difficult for the average working family with very low payment. Public health was also an issue. The Industrial Revolution was a difficult time to live in because; most of the population were poor meaning children became a normal ight to see working in factories, women had little rights, and public health was a big issue as waste covered the streets and diseases like Cholera were spread through dirty water. The table below shows points whether life during the Industrial Revolution was difficult or positive time to live. Points supporting the statement that it was a difficult time to live during the Industrial Revolution Points going against the statement that it was not a difficult time to live during the Industrial Revolution 1)Most children did not go to school 1)Transport was good with cars trains )Women could not vote 2)People like Edwin Chadwick were making ways to improve public health 3)You had to pay for dirty water 3)1848 Public Health act 4)1 toilet (a hole in the ground) for 200-300 people 4)Socialists such as Robert Owen were improving equality in Britain 5)Toilet waste was in streets 5)1861 -Germs discovered 6)Most factory owners were Capitalists 6)New luxuries such as moving pictures made it a more relaxing life 7)The money Women earned would automatlcally go to tnelr nusoanas By looking at the table, it is clear that there are two sides of the argument. One side aying that life during the Industrial Revolution was hard, the other going against the statement and saying that life durin g the Industrial Revolution was not hard. The evidence in the table shows that during the Industrial Revolution Public health was a risk with toilet waste on the streets and ranging to 200-300 people to using one toilet which was basically a hole in the ground with a wooden seat on top. However transport was getting better with steam trains making it only minutes or hours to get to places. Also people like Edwin Chadwick were trying to improve public health. This as because diseases like Cholera were spreading meaning people were getting more aware about their public health. But this didnt mean education was getting any better, only a few children in Britain could read or write. But on one hand Britain was growing in Population and wealth. As new inventions, such as in the textile industry brought in more money for the country, leading to even more inventions, meaning more luxuries. Public health was also slowly getting better; this was proved in 1861 when germs were discovered. Socialists like Robert Owen were also trying and improving equality during the Industrial Revolution. On the other hand, factory conditions were harsh with no light coming into the factories as there were no windows, beating was allowed of slow or tired workers, uncovered machines were extremely dangerous, and the average working day was 12 hours with no breaks in a hot atmosphere. For this workers were only paid a low income of one penny an hour. The education system was poor with only a few children who could read or write. However I think life during the Industrial Revolution was a difficult time to live because it was tough to get a well-paid Job if you were a normal working class family, s your education would have been for a short period especially if you were a girl. The public health was terrible with holes in the ground used as toilets and Cholera spreading rapidly. Women were also not treated equally as they were considered weak and were still not allowed to vote. In conclusion, life during the Industrial Revolution was a difficult and harsh time to live because most of the population were poor, as working in a factory was very low pay; in addition factory conditions were awful, with very hot conditions, dangerous uncovered machinery, getting beaten for orking slowly or being tired and also working 12 hours a day without breaks. The education system was terrible with not many children being able to read or write, this made it even harder to get a good well paid Job. Public health was outrageous! It would be a usual side for toilet waste to be seen on streets. People also had to pay for water which was already dirty, this spread Cholera even more. Women were not treated equally and were expected to get married, they were considered weak so any money they earned would automatically go to their husbands. Women were still not allowed to vote.

Soccer Terms in Italian - Vocabulary Practice

Soccer Terms in Italian - Vocabulary Practice You don’t have to study Italian for long before you learn that Italians love soccer. Historically and currently it’s referred to as il calcio. (Have you heard of an event called il Calcio Storico Fiorentino? It won’t look quite like the soccer matches you’re used to!) Nowadays, though, there are coaches and referees from other countries, players on loan from all over the world and tifosi (fans) internationally. In Italy, in matches ranging from the Coppa del Mondo (World Cup) to Serie A, from international friendlies to the friendly pick-up game in the piazza, a multitude of languages are spoken- not just Italian. But even so, there are advantages to knowing Italian soccer terms. If you were to attend a game in-person in Italy, chances are that youll still hear Italian spoken most of the time. And if your goal is to improve your Italian language skills, then reading Corriere dello Sport  or Gazzetta dello Sport (which is famous for its pink colored pages - even the website maintains this pink color!) for the latest results of your favorite squadra (team) or listening to soccer broadcasts in Italian is a very effective way to advance in the standings, so to speak. Besides knowing the vocabulary words that you see below, you’ll also want to know about the different teams, their nicknames, and how the leagues are structured. Common Soccer Vocabulary Words i calzoncini- shortsi calzini (le calze da giocatore)- socksi guanti da portiere- goalkeepers glovesil calcio dangolo (il corner)- corner (corner kick)il calcio di punizione- free kickil calcio di rigore (il rigore)- penalty (penalty kick)il calcio di rinvio- goal kickil campo di/da calcio- fieldil cartellino giallo (per lammonizione)- yellow card (as a caution)il cartellino rosso (per lespulsione)- red card (for expulsion)il centrocampista- midfield playeril dischetto  del calcio di rigore- penalty spotil colpo di testa- headeril difensore- defenderil difensore esterno- outside defenderil dribbling- dribbleil fallo- foulil fuorigioco- offsideil gol- goalil guardalinee- linesmanil libero- sweeperil palo (il palo della porta)- post (goalpost)il pallone- soccer ballil parastinchi- shin guardil passaggio diretto (della palla)- pass (passing the ball)il passaggio corto- short passil portiere- goalkeeperlala- outside forward (winger)lallenatore- coachlammonizione- sending-offlarbitro- r efereelarea di rigore- penalty area larresto (della palla)- receiving the ball (taking a pass)lattaccante- strikerlostruzione- obstructionla bandierina di calcio dangolo- corner flagla linea di fondo- goal linela linea di met campo- half-way linela linea laterale- touch linela maglia- shirt (jersey)la mezzala- inside forward (striker)la partita- matchla respinta di pugno- save with the fistsla rimessa laterale- throw-inla riserva (il giocatore di reserva)- substitutela rovesciata- bicycle kickla scarpa da calcio- soccer boot (shoe)la squadra- teamla traversa- crossbarlo stadio- stadiumlo stopper- inside defendersegnare un gol- to score a goaltifosi - fans For vocabulary words related to other sports, like skiing and cycling, read, 75 Vocabulary Words for Talking About Sports in Italian.

Comparison of the Microscopic Structure of Compact Bone Assignment

Comparison of the Microscopic Structure of Compact Bone - Assignment Example Spongy bones are found on the heads of the long bones such as femur, humerus, radius, tibia, and fibula, and in between flat bones such as the skull, while the compact bone forms the external surface of all bones (Saladin 172). Anatomically, joints are connections between distinct joints. They exist so the bones are interconnected, and can be one skeletal system. They can exponentially increase the range of movement of our extremities, just like our knee, elbow, shoulder and metacarpal joints, or they can strengthen the structure of our body, just like our pubic symphysis and skull sutures. Hyaline cartilage and synovial fluid lubricate joints and make movement easier. Fibrocartilage makes the joints strong against compression and shock. The enlarged epiphysis of the bones it connects also provide strength (Saladin 172-173). Once the action potential reaches the motor nerve endings on muscle fibers, the nerve secretes acetylcholine, which initiates the influx of sodium ions into the muscle fiber, causing an action potential at the membrane. This potential travels along the muscle fiber membrane, and in the process depolarizing in the membrane. This then causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release large quantities of calcium ions, which initiate the binding of actin and myosin filaments that occurs during the contraction. After muscle contraction, calcium ions are returned back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing muscle relaxation (Guyton and Hall 74). Upon receiving an impulse from the musculocutaneous nerve (Saladin 362), the biceps brachii (Saladin 328), exerts effort on the radius, with resistance contributed by the weight of the forearm or anything held in hand. Fulcrum is the elbow (Saladin 309).  

The Educational Level of Leadership and Effectiveness of Thesis

The Educational Level of Leadership and Effectiveness of Organizational Change - Thesis Example In this regard, leaders responsible for planning and implementation of the change must be able to understand different factors of change and in situations where such an understanding is absent, organizations have been experiencing failures in the process of change. For this reason, the proposed research will be focusing on one of the major factors of organizational change, educational level of leadership, and subsequently, importance of educational and understanding level in the workforce as well (Williams et al, 2002). In specific, changes in organizations are observable in various forms, such as technological change, structural change, strategic change, and thus, these initiatives require a huge amount of effort for the success; however, lack of importance of educational level results in contrary results. In this regard, proposed research will be an attempt to identify and analyze different processes and procedures associated with the organizational change that will provide benefic ial outcomes to the business community. In addition, it is an observation that due to such a significant importance of organizational change, leaders do not only have the responsibility of carrying out the process of change in an organized manner. However, at the same time, they should continue the process of evaluation of management competency, and in other words, educational level of leadership, as well as the workforce that will be crucial to the success of changes in the organization (Poole, 2000). For this purpose, a primary area of focus for this research will be the relationship of an educated workforce from not only a competitive perspective for the organization, but also for those who find themselves on the receiving end of changes to their workplace. In addition, many leaders find themselves working with nothing more than a conceptualization of what the reorganizational development will look like, to developing and refining the concept into a plan of action and implementation. Moreover, leaders and managers expe rienced with organizational change may find it surprising of the failure rate of organizations that undertake change initiatives involving restructuring and reengineering efforts. ‘It is surprising that as much as eighty percent of organizations that undertake change initiatives fail at meeting their objectives’ (Black & Gregersen, 2008). This number is quite stunning. The challenge; however, is in determining reasons for this â€Å"failure† that will be the major part of the proposed research. In specific, without a solid foundation in understanding the approaches and ways of planning and analysis of change, and understanding application of the change-theory to an organization that is undergoing change, failure is a likely outcome (Williams et al, 2002). Thus, as with a company’s infrastructure involving its employees’ day-to-day function within its operations, and its relationship to competitiveness and profitability, a connection will be possible to the same employees and their educational level with their ability to work within the same constructs then add into the equation change

John Grisham Essay Example for Free

John Grisham Essay Introduction The Capital Area Food Bank has been serving 633,000 unprivileged residents in Washington D. C Metropolitan Area and 200,000 children whose standards of living are precarious inviting utmost care and concern. There are 200,000 children who are in need of food. [source: U. S Census Bureau,2000] Food Bank distributes over and above 62,000 pounds on daily basis and serves meals accounting to 1. 6 million per month apart from serving 700 non-profit partnership agencies affiliated with Washington D. C. Metropolitan Area. The minimum wage of D. C. is $7. 00. Also the minimum wage is $6. 15 in Maryland and $5. 15 in Virginia. [source:Hunger in America 2006, Mathematica Policy Research] CAFB definition of poverty : The Capital Area Food Bank defines poverty based upon 185% of the poverty guidelines. This means that a household may earn up to 185% of the U. S. government’s standard of poverty and still be considered â€Å"in poverty†. This measure (and other multiples such as 125%, 150% and even 200% of poverty) is utilized determine eligibility for many government programs. 1 Contributing factors to Hunger and Homelessness 1. Unemployment The following States have the problem of unemployment [2005]. Sno State High Low 1 Mississipi ^ 2 Louisiana ^ 3 South Carolina ^ 4 Alaska ^ 5 Michigan ^ 6 Hawaii ÐŽ 7 North Dakota ÐŽ 8 Vermont ÐŽ 9 Virginia ÐŽ 2. National poverty indicators: Sno (In millions} Status For the Year 1 25,350 Individuals 2005 2 5,146 Avg monthly individuals 2005 3 25,682 Avg monthly food stamp: individuals 2005 4 38,196 Food insecurity-household 2004 5 7,591 Unemployed individuals 2005 6 36,997 Individuals in poverty 2004 [source:Hunger in America, Draft Report, February 2006] 2. Food Insecurity [2002-2004] 1 Oklahoma ^ 2 South Carolina ^ 3 Arkansas ^ 4 Delaware ÐŽ. 5 North Dakota ÐŽ 6 New Hampshire ÐŽ 7 Minnesota ^ 8 Hawaii ^ [source:National Statistics on Hunger and Poverty]2 3. States with poverty [2004]3 1 New Hampshire 1 2 Minnesota 2 3 Vermont 3 4 New Jersey 4 5 Hawaii 5 6 Delaware 6 7 Masschusetts 7 8 Alaska 7 9 Virginia 9 10 Nebraska 10 11 North Dakota 11 12 Maryland 12 13 Wyoming 13 14 Idaho 13 15 Utah 13 16 Connecticut 16 17 Colorado 16 18 Iowa 18 19 Oklahoma 19 20 Nevada 20 21 Pennsylvania 21 22 Kansas 22 23 Rhode Island 23 24 Washington 23 25 Florida 25 26 Maine 25 27 Indiana 25 28 Ohio 25 29 Missouri 30 30 Illinois 30 31 Wisconsin 32 32 Georgia 33. 33 California 34 34 Michigan 34 35 South Dakota 36 36 Montana 37 37 West Virginia 38 38 Arizona 39 39 North Carolina 40 40 South Carolina 41 41 New York 42 42 Arkansas 43 43 Tennessee 44 44 New Mexico 45 45 Texas 45 46 Alabama 49 47 Kentucky 50 48 Mississippi 51 57% of hunger is prevalent in urban areas and 43% is prevalent in sub-urban/rural areas of U. S4. 4. Income – Household Employment status [2006]5 sno Income – (USD) percentage Employment percentage 1 0-999 60. 6 Full-time 14. 6 2 1000-2499 25. 3 Part-time 13. 2 3 2500 and above 2. 9 Unemployed 72. 2 4 Not known 11. 2 North Carolina – A study. Statistics of hunger and poverty in North Carolina sno year Household income (Avg) % (+) (-) Increase in numbers From To Increase % 1 2000 –2002 (-) $1749 (-) 4. 4 985,000 1. 07 mn 9 According to the survey of Wake Forest University School of Medicine, it was found that the overall percentage of hunger in U. S in 4. 3 and according to Quandt â€Å"food insecurity† is between 35. 6% to 41. 8% in four surveys conducted. North Carolina with a population of 8 million is having an account of 15. 2 % of individuals and 21. 2% of families with small children facing a risk of hunger. Statistics of Polkton. 1 Total population 18,324 2 Households 7,908 3 Families 5,337 4 Average household size 2. 28 5 Average family size 2. 78 6 Household Median income $36,259 7 Family Median Income $45,096 8 Percapita Income $19,804 9 Male – Median income $29,375 10 Female-Median income $23,070 11 Below poverty line-18 under 11. 70% 12 Below poverty line-65 and older 8. 80% 13 Children under 18 23. 50% 14 Married couples 56. 30% 15 Female householders 7. 90% 16 Non-families 32. 50% 17 Individual households 28. 90% 18 65 and older living alone 15% 19 Below poverty line 10. 10% of population 20 Families below poverty line 6. 40%. The break up of people living is: †¢ White : 92. 26% †¢ African American : 5. 89% †¢ Native American : 0. 19 †¢ Asian : 0. 247 Conclusion The result of 25 cities survey of status report on Hunger and Homelessness in U. S concludes that 83 per cent of cities surveyed that there is a dire need of assistance in shelter and food which has risen by 15 per cent, still having 76 per cent of cities reporting to be increasing. There are totally thirteen cities facing the acute and emergency need of home and food. viz. , Burlington, Vermont,Philadelphia,Pennsylvania,Charlotte,North Carolina,Portland,Oregon, San Antonio and Texas. [source:Mayor’s Conference]. North Carolina crisis in budget is expected to exceed $1Billion. Some of the other contributing factors are : increase in accommodation cost, unemployment, and employment problems, poverty, low income or lack of income, increasing utility rates, non-availability of transportation and handicapped and mentally disabled persons. There is an account of 1/5 of homeless persons who are mentally ill in the above cities. According to a survey 60percent of eastern North Carolina have participated in WIC program conducted by U. S Department of Agriculture, as compared to 40 per cent in Forsyth County. 6 Compared to other parts of the world, United States is free from food insecurity and hunger. The nations data accounts that 82. 4 per cent of households were secured with food and 13. 3. Percent of households were food insecure and 4. 3 percent were accounted with hunger. There are several community based organizations and local head departments [CBO, LHD] which are working for North Carolina to assist people in every manner providing comfort for illness and food. There is a severe need for adult care for treating mental illnesses apart from providing all kinds of facilities for children. References [1] Hunger in D C Metro Area, Capital Area Food Bank http://www. capitalareafoodbank. org/hunger/statistics. cfm [2]. A Report on the North Carolina 2003 Public Health Partnership Survey of Local Health Department and community based organization. http://www. schs. state. nc. us/SCHS/pdf/LHDCBOSurveyweb. pdf#search=%22statistics%20of%20hunger%20and%20poverty%20in%20Anson%20county%22 [3] Housing and extreme poverty of extreme poverty http://www. common-sense. org/journal/housing. html.